Yоu see а 76-yeаr-оld wоmаn with mild dementia who is living at home and is accompanied by her homecare provider. She has COPD and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An example of a secondary prevention strategy is:
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InstructiоnsReаd eаch questiоn cаrefully.Answer each questiоn by bubbling your answer on the Scantron answer sheet.After you have finished answering all questions, select TRUE.Click Finish Attempt at the bottom of the page.On the next page, click Submit All and Finish.If a confirmation message appears, click Submit All and Finish again to complete your submission.Once your assessment has been submitted successfully, notify your proctor that you are finished. Please wait for the proctor's instructions before proceeding to the next step.PIC Assessment 2 Key/Version B____ 1. Which assessment finding requires immediate attention during the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury? a. Distended neck veins with increasing dependent edema c. Stable blood pressure with a gradual weight gain b. Hypotension with a rapid loss of body weight d. Decreased urine output with a bounding pulse ____ 2. Which urine specific gravity finding indicates concentrated urine in a patient being assessed for fluid balance? a. 1.010 c. 1.030 b. 1.005 d. 1.020 ____ 3. Which postoperative assessment is most important for detecting a major early complication after coronary artery bypass graft surgery? a. Measure chest tube drainage and inspect incision sites for bleeding c. Remove invasive monitoring devices immediately after surgery b. Assess appetite before evaluating hemodynamic status d. Limit monitoring to the surgical incision after extubation ____ 4. Which nursing action best supports accurate assessment during an STI interview? a. Interview the patient privately using a respectful and nonjudgmental approach c. Limit questions to current genital symptoms and physical findings b. Include the patient’s partner to verify the reported sexual history d. Use identical counseling statements for every patient regardless of risk ____ 5. Which finding supports classification of an asthma exacerbation as mild to moderate? a. The patient speaks in sentences and has a PEFR greater than 50% of personal best c. The patient is confused and has a silent chest on auscultation b. The patient speaks only in words and has a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min d. The patient is drowsy and has a PEFR less than 50% of personal best ____ 6. Which nursing intervention has priority for a patient with pancytopenia caused by aplastic anemia? a. Use intramuscular injections for routine medications c. Delay infection assessment until fever develops b. Implement measures that prevent infection and bleeding d. Encourage unrestricted activity to improve endurance ____ 7. Which intervention is appropriate for a patient with symptomatic hypocalcemia and tetany? a. Provide only a low-calcium diet c. Delay treatment until the ECG normalizes b. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate as prescribed d. Administer a loop diuretic routinely ____ 8. What position should be avoided after posterior-approach total hip replacement to prevent prosthesis dislocation? a. Keeping the knees separated with an abduction wedge between the legs c. Maintaining the head and trunk in an upright position while standing b. Flexing the hip beyond 90 degrees while sitting on a low chair d. Using an elevated toilet seat during early recovery ____ 9. What change in defibrillator management is required when a patient undergoing synchronized cardioversion becomes pulseless and develops ventricular fibrillation? a. Pause electrical therapy and obtain a routine ECG c. Maintain synchronization and continue elective cardioversion b. Increase sedation and wait for a palpable pulse d. Turn off the synchronizer and begin defibrillation ____ 10. What action should the nurse take first when a patient with supraventricular tachycardia becomes hypotensive and clinically unstable? a. Administer oral anticoagulation before rhythm treatment c. Prepare for immediate synchronized cardioversion b. Observe the rhythm until spontaneous conversion occurs d. Schedule an outpatient electrophysiologic study ____ 11. Which positioning intervention is appropriate for a patient with facial and neck burns? a. Place a pillow directly beneath the burned ears c. Place a rolled towel under the shoulders to support neck hyperextension b. Maintain the neck in a flexed position d. Wrap the entire face tightly with gauze ____ 12. What postoperative action best supports safe progression to ambulation? a. Assist the patient directly from lying to walking c. Raise the head of the bed before sitting the patient b. Return the patient to bed after any mild fatigue d. Ask the patient to walk without pulse monitoring ____ 13. Which intervention best addresses modifiable risk factors in a patient with stage A heart failure? a. Promote weight management, dietary improvement, and regular exercise c. Restrict all physical activity to prevent cardiac workload b. Avoid recommended vaccinations unless heart failure develops d. Wait for symptoms before treating hypertension and diabetes ____ 14. Which treatment should the interprofessional team consider early for a younger patient with severe aplastic anemia who has received few blood transfusions? a. Routine oral iron supplementation alone c. Immediate calcium channel blocker therapy b. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation d. Long-term supportive transfusions alone ____ 15. What blood pressure parameter should the nurse maintain during alteplase treatment for ischemic stroke and for 24 hours afterward? a. Systolic blood pressure less than 185 mm Hg c. Systolic blood pressure less than 220 mm Hg b. Systolic blood pressure less than 150 mm Hg d. Systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg ____ 16. Which assessment trend best evaluates a patient’s response to acute respiratory failure treatment? a. Reduced anxiety without evaluating respiratory effort or gas exchange c. Improved appetite without monitoring oxygen saturation or blood gases b. Stable body weight without reassessment of respiratory function d. Improving respiratory status with favorable trends in arterial blood gas results ____ 17. Which physiologic response most directly helps maintain cardiac output during severe anemia? a. Decreased heart rate and stroke volume c. Increased heart rate and stroke volume b. Decreased pulmonary and systemic circulation d. Reduced cardiac workload and oxygen demand ____ 18. Which laboratory evaluation is appropriate when assessing obesity-related liver and metabolic effects? a. Serum calcium alone without glucose or lipid testing c. Urinalysis alone without metabolic or liver testing b. Liver function tests, fasting glucose, and a lipid panel d. A stool culture alone without liver function testing ____ 19. Which specimen is appropriate for nucleic acid amplification testing when evaluating suspected gonorrhea in a man? a. A serum specimen obtained before urination c. A stool specimen collected after antibiotic therapy b. A urine specimen or urethral swab d. A sputum specimen collected during a productive cough ____ 20. Which intervention is appropriate for a woman experiencing vaginal dryness during hormone therapy after breast surgery? a. Recommend discontinuing hormone therapy without consultation c. Avoid discussing sexual concerns until physical healing is complete b. Use a vaginal lubricant to reduce discomfort during intercourse d. Assume mastectomy prevents future sexual satisfaction ____ 21. Which patient finding should prompt screening for chronic kidney disease risk? a. A single episode of seasonal allergic rhinitis c. A normal blood pressure with no kidney history b. A history of diabetes and persistent hypertension d. A remote ankle sprain without medication exposure ____ 22. Which monitoring action is indicated when repeated short-acting bronchodilator doses are administered? a. Withhold all cardiovascular assessment until respiratory symptoms resolve c. Monitor vital signs and the ECG for tachycardia, hypertension, dysrhythmias, or ischemic changes b. Monitor only bowel sounds because cardiac effects are not expected d. Monitor urine color because bronchodilators primarily affect renal function ____ 23. Which clinical condition meets a commonly used indication for renal replacement therapy in acute kidney injury? a. Mild edema without respiratory or cardiac compromise c. Stable serum potassium with normal cardiac findings b. Serum bicarbonate below 15 mEq/L with metabolic acidosis d. BUN level of 40 mg/dL with no neurologic changes ____ 24. Which postoperative finding requires immediate attention to reduce aspiration risk? a. Tolerance of prescribed clear liquids c. Return of peristalsis after surgery b. Vomiting while the patient remains lethargic d. Gas discomfort on the second postoperative day ____ 25. What therapy is identified as the treatment of choice for persistent atrial flutter? a. Continuous chest physiotherapy c. Radiofrequency catheter ablation b. Routine oxygen therapy without rhythm treatment d. Permanent anticoagulation as the only therapy ____ 26. Which therapy is preferred for rapid replacement of fluid volume when the patient has a severe deficit without blood loss? a. 0.9% sodium chloride solution c. Oral fluid restriction b. Loop diuretic therapy d. 5% dextrose in water ____ 27. What intervention has priority for pulseless ventricular tachycardia? a. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation and rapid defibrillation c. Provide elective synchronized cardioversion after sedation b. Obtain a routine outpatient Holter recording d. Administer oral amiodarone before initiating compressions ____ 28. Which action is appropriate before applying silver sulfadiazine to a burn wound? a. Apply the medication despite documented sulfa sensitivity c. Administer another sulfa medication first b. Verify only a history of latex sensitivity d. Verify that the patient has no sulfa allergy or sensitivity ____ 29. Which upper gastrointestinal disorder is identified as an obesity-related health risk? a. Stress incontinence c. Left ventricular hypertrophy b. Chronic kidney disease d. Gastroesophageal reflux disease ____ 30. Which intervention is appropriate for supporting breathing in a patient with an inhalation injury? a. Place the patient flat in bed c. Withhold oxygen until arterial blood gases are available b. Place the patient in high Fowler’s position unless contraindicated d. Restrict fluids as the primary respiratory intervention ____ 31. Which nursing assessment is most important for detecting organ injury from disseminated intravascular coagulation? a. Assess skin temperature without reviewing laboratory studies c. Measure oral intake without assessing mental status b. Monitor urine output for a decrease d. Monitor only for visible bruising ____ 32. Which finding is most consistent with a lower gastrointestinal complication after bariatric surgery? a. Reduced need for protein during the first postoperative months c. Diarrhea associated with high-carbohydrate intake b. Increased tolerance of large meals without discomfort d. Improved appetite after consuming calorie-dense foods ____ 33. Which prescribed therapy helps reduce the incidence of postoperative atrial fibrillation after coronary artery bypass graft surgery? a. Restart a beta-blocker as soon as possible after surgery when not contraindicated c. Use a sequential compression device as the primary rhythm therapy b. Administer a long-acting nitrate to every postoperative patient d. Delay all cardiac medications until hospital discharge ____ 34. What method is appropriate for administering albuterol during acute bronchospasm? a. Administer the medication with a hand-held nebulizer or metered-dose inhaler with a spacer c. Administer the medication by intramuscular injection instead of inhalation b. Administer the medication only by an oral tablet during the acute episode d. Administer the medication through a feeding tube at routine daily intervals ____ 35. Which intervention most effectively reduces venous thromboembolism risk in a patient with poststroke hemiplegia? a. Limit repositioning to prevent neurologic stimulation c. Promote movement through active or passive range-of-motion exercises b. Place the affected extremity below the level of the heart d. Maintain the affected extremity in an immobile position ____ 36. What activity should be avoided to protect a joint replacement from excessive implant stress? a. Stationary cycling performed according to rehabilitation guidance c. Prescribed quadriceps-setting exercises performed regularly b. High-impact exercise such as jogging or tennis d. Swimming performed after the incision has adequately healed ____ 37. Which dietary instruction is appropriate during the long-term recovery period after bariatric surgery? a. Eat rapidly until the prescribed portion is finished c. Consume three large meals containing calorie-dense foods b. Drink fluids with meals to increase food tolerance d. Consume six small, high-protein feedings daily ____ 38. What action should be completed before initiating oral feeding after an acute stroke? a. Offer thin liquids to test the patient’s swallowing ability c. Keep the patient NPO until swallowing safety is evaluated b. Begin feeding after confirming that the patient is awake d. Provide a regular meal before completing the neurologic assessment ____ 39. Which measurement provides the standard calculation used to classify overweight and obesity? a. Weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared c. Weight in pounds divided by height in inches b. Height in meters divided by weight in kilograms squared d. Waist circumference divided by hip circumference ____ 40. Which action is required before initiating prescribed thrombolytic therapy for an acute coronary syndrome? a. Perform invasive procedures after the thrombolytic infusion begins c. Delay intravenous access until reperfusion is confirmed b. Obtain baseline laboratory values and establish two or three intravenous lines d. Begin the thrombolytic infusion before obtaining baseline studies ____ 41. Which monitoring action is essential during treatment of hypernatremia? a. Monitor serum sodium and serum osmolality c. Avoid monitoring neurologic status during treatment b. Decrease sodium to normal as rapidly as possible d. Administer sodium-containing fluids for every cause ____ 42. Which prehospital action limits progression of thermal tissue damage after a burn? a. Keep the patient covered with multiple wet dressings c. Apply topical antimicrobial cream before cooling b. Flush the burned tissue with copious amounts of water d. Cover the wound immediately with a dry blanket ____ 43. Which nursing action directly supports the primary goals of burn wound care? a. Leave necrotic tissue undisturbed beneath the dressing c. Apply a new dressing without removing the old medication b. Scrub the wound forcefully to remove all tissue d. Cleanse the wound, remove necrotic tissue, and reapply the prescribed dressing ____ 44. Which reproductive assessment finding is included among possible manifestations of chronic kidney disease? a. Increased fertility with regular ovulation c. Amenorrhea or erectile dysfunction b. Increased testosterone production with enhanced libido d. Permanent reproductive function without hormonal changes ____ 45. Which intervention is the priority when a severe asthma exacerbation worsens during outpatient treatment? a. Discontinue bronchodilator therapy and allow the patient to rest in the clinic c. Transfer the patient to an acute care facility while administering SABA, oxygen, and systemic corticosteroid b. Discharge the patient after symptoms briefly decrease without reassessment d. Begin inhaled corticosteroid therapy and postpone oxygen administration ____ 46. What finding requires immediate notification of the health care provider after orthopedic surgery? a. Stable distal pulses that are equal bilaterally c. Mild incisional discomfort relieved by the prescribed analgesic b. Small unchanged drainage noted on the postoperative dressing d. An increase in the size of the bloody drainage area on the dressing ____ 47. Which nutrition intervention supports sustainable weight loss in an adult with obesity? a. Select the most restrictive diet regardless of food preferences c. Emphasize vegetables, fruits, whole grains, and lean protein b. Replace nutritious foods with sugary beverages for additional calories d. Eliminate an entire food category for rapid weight reduction ____ 48. Which cervical cancer screening schedule is recommended by the USPSTF for a 25-year-old patient with a cervix? a. Primary HPV testing every year c. Cytology testing every 3 years b. Cytology and HPV cotesting every 5 years d. No screening until symptoms of cervical cancer occur ____ 49. Which nursing intervention best supports ventilation during an acute asthma attack accompanied by anxiety and increased work of breathing? a. Position the patient in high Fowler’s position and coach pursed-lip breathing c. Encourage forceful coughing while delaying prescribed bronchodilator therapy b. Place the patient supine and encourage rapid shallow breathing d. Leave the patient alone to decrease external stimulation during the attack ____ 50. Which electrocardiographic pattern should the nurse associate with acute hyperkalemia in acute kidney injury? a. Narrow QRS complexes with inverted P waves c. Peaked T waves with QRS widening b. Prolonged QT intervals with prominent U waves d. Shortened PR intervals with delta waves ____ 51. Which patient history supports consideration of an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator? a. Survival from a previous sudden cardiac death c. Controlled atrial flutter without ventricular instability b. A normal ambulatory ECG with no dysrhythmia history d. A single isolated premature ventricular contraction ____ 52. What peak expiratory flow rate requires the patient with asthma to seek health care as soon as possible? a. A value in the red zone at 50% or less of the personal best c. A value slightly above the patient’s established personal best b. A value in the green zone at 80% to 100% of the personal best d. A value in the yellow zone at 50% to 80% of the personal best ____ 53. Which communication technique should the nurse use with a patient who has aphasia after a stroke? a. Use complex explanations to provide complete information quickly c. Speak loudly and repeat several ideas in one question b. Present one simple thought at a time and allow uninterrupted response time d. Interrupt the patient to complete difficult responses ____ 54. Which urinary-system concern should be included in the assessment of a patient with obesity? a. Gastroesophageal reflux disease c. Atrial fibrillation b. Polycystic ovary syndrome d. Stress urinary incontinence ____ 55. Which finding most strongly suggests destruction of dermal nerve endings in a burn wound? a. Pain surrounding intact blisters c. Severe pain with a moist, red wound b. Pain that increases during wound cleansing d. Absence of pain in a deeply burned area ____ 56. What monitoring method continuously records a patient’s ECG while the patient performs usual daily activities? a. Holter monitoring c. Synchronized cardioversion b. Electrophysiologic study d. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator interrogation only ____ 57. Which assessment pattern is most consistent with septic shock rather than early hemorrhagic shock? a. Warm skin with strong pulses and stable vital signs c. Cool, pale skin with initially stable blood pressure b. Pale skin with decreased temperature and improved urine output d. Warm, pink skin with tachycardia and unstable blood pressure ____ 58. Which nursing action promotes an accurate weight assessment for a patient with obesity? a. Estimate weight from waist circumference without measuring body weight c. Obtain the weight privately with equipment that accommodates the patient b. Measure weight publicly using a standard examination scale d. Use the patient’s reported weight instead of measuring current weight ____ 59. Which nursing action best evaluates daily changes in fluid status for a patient with acute kidney injury? a. Obtain daily weights using the same scale and schedule c. Record urine appearance without measuring urine volume b. Estimate fluid balance from the patient’s thirst level d. Measure blood pressure only when edema becomes visible ____ 60. Which partner-management instruction is appropriate after treatment for a reportable STI? a. Wait for public health staff to identify every sexual contact c. Notify only partners with visible genital lesions b. Tell sexual partners to obtain testing and treatment even without symptoms d. Resume sexual activity after symptoms disappear ____ 61. Which measurement most directly evaluates carbon dioxide elimination during respiratory support? a. Arterial blood pressure c. Peripheral oxygen saturation b. End-tidal carbon dioxide d. Cardiac electrical activity ____ 62. Which intervention is appropriate for a patient who is NPO after surgery? a. Stop all fluid therapy until bowel sounds return c. Offer solid food before assessing swallowing b. Administer prescribed intravenous fluids d. Provide unrestricted oral fluids immediately ____ 63. Which safer-sex teaching point should the nurse include regarding nonoxynol 9? a. Add nonoxynol 9 to condoms to improve infection prevention c. Use nonoxynol 9 instead of condoms when pregnancy prevention is needed b. Avoid using nonoxynol 9 alone as protection against STI transmission d. Apply nonoxynol 9 before every sexual encounter for complete protection ____ 64. Which intervention is appropriate for a patient with mild fluid volume deficit who can swallow safely? a. Offer oral rehydration fluids c. Administer sodium-free intravenous fluid immediately b. Begin rapid blood product administration d. Restrict oral fluids until laboratory values normalize ____ 65. Which monitoring plan is expected for a patient receiving intensive care for severe acute respiratory failure? a. Intermittent temperature checks without continuous oxygenation assessment c. Pulse checks only when the patient reports increased shortness of breath b. Continuous pulse oximetry, arterial blood pressure monitoring, and frequent arterial blood gases d. Daily respiratory assessments without arterial blood gas measurement ____ 66. What neurologic change requires immediate notification of the health care provider after a brain injury? a. A need for routine assistance with repositioning c. A stable neurologic assessment at the scheduled interval b. A request for reduced environmental stimulation d. A subtle decrease in level of consciousness ____ 67. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for a patient with stable monomorphic ventricular tachycardia, a pulse, and preserved left ventricular function? a. Intravenous magnesium as the routine first choice for every VT pattern c. Oral warfarin b. Intravenous procainamide d. Inhaled corticosteroid therapy ____ 68. Which finding is most consistent with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion in a patient with a neurologic disorder? a. Increased urine output with normal serum sodium c. Decreased urine output with dilutional hyponatremia b. Increased urine output with hypernatremia d. Decreased urine output with hypernatremia ____ 69. Which eligibility criterion supports consideration of prescribed drug therapy for obesity? a. A BMI of 24 kg/m2 without comorbid disease c. A BMI of 27 kg/m2 with hypertension b. A BMI of 26 kg/m2 with a preference for rapid weight loss d. A BMI of 25 kg/m2 with no health complication ____ 70. Which weight-bearing instruction corresponds to touch-down or toe-touch ambulation after lower-extremity surgery? a. Permit approximately one-half of body weight through the involved limb c. Prevent all contact between the involved limb and the floor b. Permit unlimited weight through the involved limb as tolerated d. Permit the toes to contact the floor for balance without bearing weight ____ 71. Which instruction should the nurse provide to a patient treated for gonorrhea? a. Return for repeat testing 3 months after treatment c. Resume sexual contact immediately after receiving ceftriaxone b. Wait for culture results before beginning prescribed treatment d. Avoid notifying sexual contacts who do not have symptoms ____ 72. Which prescribed therapy directly targets the ventricular response in atrial flutter? a. A loop diuretic as the sole rhythm-control medication c. A calcium channel blocker or beta-blocker b. An inhaled short-acting bronchodilator d. An oral iron replacement product ____ 73. Which complication should the nurse associate with repeated chlamydial infections in a woman? a. Pelvic inflammatory disease with increased infertility risk c. Reduced risk for ectopic pregnancy after each infection b. Permanent protection against future chlamydial reinfection d. Improved tubal function with increased fertility ____ 74. What nursing action best reduces fall risk associated with orthostatic hypotension from fluid volume deficit? a. Place the patient in a darkened room c. Encourage the patient to stand rapidly b. Teach the patient to change positions slowly d. Keep the patient on strict bed rest ____ 75. Which referral is most appropriate for a woman with persistent genital pain and difficulty with sexual activity? a. A health care professional experienced in female sexual medicine c. A provider who evaluates only urinary tract infections b. No referral unless laboratory testing confirms an abnormality d. A provider who focuses only on breast cancer screening ____ 76. Which positioning intervention best promotes venous drainage while helping preserve cerebral perfusion? a. Elevate the head of the bed while maintaining the head in a midline position c. Place the patient flat with the neck flexed toward the chest b. Flex the neck and elevate the head of the bed above 30 degrees d. Keep the head turned to the side with the hips sharply flexed ____ 77. Which assessment finding is most consistent with a partial-thickness burn? a. A black, charred wound with intact sensation c. A dry, leathery, painless wound b. An intact, nonerythematous epidermis d. A wet, shiny, pink-to-cherry-red wound ____ 78. Which prescribed treatment provides enzymatic debridement of a burn wound? a. Silver sulfadiazine applied to the wound c. Collagenase applied to nonviable burn tissue b. A silver-impregnated dressing placed over the wound d. A transparent dressing placed over the wound ____ 79. What patient instruction best reduces the risk of complications during the initial phase of cast care? a. Insert a narrow object under the cast to relieve itching c. Place the casted extremity below heart level during rest b. Elevate the casted extremity above heart level and apply ice as directed d. Keep the joints above and below the cast completely immobile ____ 80. What intervention best supports early functional recovery after hip or knee arthroplasty? a. Restrict joint movement until all postoperative pain has resolved c. Coordinate prescribed analgesia with early range-of-motion exercise and ambulation b. Continue prophylactic anticoagulation for only the first postoperative day d. Delay ambulation until the patient has regained full muscle strength ____ 81. Which assessment finding is most consistent with chronic kidney disease–associated anemia? a. Macrocytic anemia caused only by excess red blood cell production c. Normocytic, normochromic anemia with reduced erythropoietin production b. Microcytic anemia caused only by increased erythropoietin production d. Hemolytic anemia caused only by increased red blood cell survival ____ 82. What urine output defines oliguria during the initial phase of acute kidney injury? a. Approximately 1 to 3 L per day c. More than 400 mL per day b. Less than 400 mL per day d. Approximately 5 L per day ____ 83. Which finding supports a prerenal cause of acute kidney injury during the diagnostic assessment? a. A recent history of dehydration and blood loss c. Recent diagnosis of bladder outlet obstruction b. Recent exposure to contrast media d. Urine sediment containing abundant cellular casts ____ 84. Which medication combination is appropriate when a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent is used for refractory intracranial hypertension? a. A neuromuscular blocking agent combined only with an antiseizure medication c. A neuromuscular blocking agent combined only with an IV fluid b. A neuromuscular blocking agent combined with sedation and analgesia d. A neuromuscular blocking agent administered without additional medication ____ 85. Which ambulation technique is appropriate when a patient uses a cane for an involved lower extremity? a. Advance the uninvolved extremity before advancing the cane c. Support body weight by leaning the axilla onto the cane b. Hold the cane in the hand on the same side as the involved extremity d. Hold the cane in the hand opposite the involved extremity ____ 86. Which assessment finding most directly indicates inadequate renal perfusion in a patient being evaluated for hemodynamic instability? a. Hypoactive bowel sounds c. Decreased urine output b. Warm, pink skin d. Increased peripheral pulses ____ 87. What assessment sequence best evaluates the neurovascular status distal to an extremity fracture? a. Assess pain, joint range of motion, muscle size, gait, and posture c. Assess color, temperature, capillary refill, pulses, edema, sensation, motor function, and pain b. Assess muscle strength, reflexes, balance, hearing, and visual acuity d. Assess skin turgor, bowel sounds, lung sounds, temperature, and urine output ____ 88. Which assessment is essential before administering an antidysrhythmic medication? a. Assess appetite without obtaining cardiac or laboratory data c. Withhold pulse assessment until after the medication is given b. Review the baseline ECG, vital signs, medications, and laboratory results d. Review only the patient’s temperature and bowel sounds ____ 89. Which preparation is required before nonemergency synchronized cardioversion for a patient who is awake and hemodynamically stable? a. Turn off synchronization before delivering the initial shock c. Withhold sedation and apply the defibrillator without monitoring b. Administer prescribed intravenous sedation and maintain airway vigilance d. Administer routine oral medications and postpone airway assessment ____ 90. Which assessment finding indicates an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? a. New or worsening dyspnea accompanied by increased sputum volume or purulence c. Improved sleep with decreased respiratory effort and wheezing b. Decreased dyspnea with normal alertness and stable oxygen needs d. Stable exercise tolerance with unchanged sputum characteristics ____ 91. Which treatment combination is commonly used for an acute COPD exacerbation? a. A long-acting beta agonist used alone for immediate symptom relief c. An inhaled corticosteroid used alone without bronchodilator therapy b. A loop diuretic used routinely without assessing fluid status d. A short-acting beta agonist combined with an oral systemic corticosteroid ____ 92. Which endocrine assessment finding should the nurse associate with progressive chronic kidney disease? a. Increased parathyroid hormone associated with low serum calcium c. Increased insulin production associated with improved glucose tolerance b. Reduced parathyroid hormone associated with high serum calcium d. Reduced thyroid hormone associated with increased erythropoiesis ____ 93. Which intervention is the priority for a patient experiencing heatstroke? a. Rapidly reduce the patient’s core temperature c. Cover the patient with heavy blankets b. Delay cardiac monitoring until temperature normalizes d. Encourage shivering during cooling ____ 94. What assessment pattern is associated with diabetes insipidus after neurologic injury? a. Increased urine output with hypernatremia c. Decreased urine output with hypernatremia b. Increased urine output with dilutional hyponatremia d. Decreased urine output with dilutional hyponatremia ____ 95. What teaching is appropriate for a patient with a new lower-limb amputation who is learning residual-limb care? a. Leave the compression bandage off whenever the patient is resting c. Apply the compression bandage snugly and avoid restricting circulation b. Allow the residual limb to dangle over the bedside several times daily d. Wrap the residual limb tightly enough to eliminate all distal pulses ____ 96. Which intervention best limits contracture formation during burn rehabilitation? a. Maintain prescribed positioning, splinting, and range-of-motion exercises c. Limit movement until the skin is fully mature b. Maintain the burned joint in a flexed position d. Apply pressure garments over an unhealed wound ____ 97. What finding supports the use of intracranial pressure monitoring in a patient with neurologic injury? a. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 with an abnormal CT scan c. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 with a normal CT scan b. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 with a normal MRI scan d. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12 with a normal CT scan ____ 98. Which exercise should be reinforced for a patient recovering from a Colles’ fracture? a. Complete immobilization of the shoulder and elbow joints c. Active movement of the fingers and thumb on the affected hand b. Forceful wrist rotation against the immobilization device d. Repeated lifting of heavy objects with the affected hand ____ 99. Which reproductive complication can result from epididymitis associated with chlamydia in a man? a. Improved testicular drainage c. Permanent immunity to other STIs b. Increased sperm production d. Male infertility ____ 100. Which renal problem is identified as a possible health risk associated with obesity? a. Lumbar disk disease c. Chronic kidney disease b. Coronary artery disease d. Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis