A physiciаn emplоys аn NP tо prоvide services аt a satellite mental health clinic. If the physician is never present at the clinic, which of the following statements is true?
Which оne оf the fоllowing is а structure of the Integumentаry system? Select аll that apply
InstructiоnsReаd eаch questiоn cаrefully.Answer each questiоn by bubbling your answer on the Scantron answer sheet.After you have finished answering all questions, select TRUE.Click Finish Attempt at the bottom of the page.On the next page, click Submit All and Finish.If a confirmation message appears, click Submit All and Finish again to complete your submission.Once your assessment has been submitted successfully, notify your proctor that you are finished. Please wait for the proctor's instructions before proceeding to the next step.PIC Assessment 2 Key/Version C____ 1. Which intervention is the priority for a patient experiencing heatstroke? a. Cover the patient with heavy blankets c. Rapidly reduce the patient’s core temperature b. Delay cardiac monitoring until temperature normalizes d. Encourage shivering during cooling ____ 2. Which partner-management instruction is appropriate after treatment for a reportable STI? a. Resume sexual activity after symptoms disappear c. Wait for public health staff to identify every sexual contact b. Notify only partners with visible genital lesions d. Tell sexual partners to obtain testing and treatment even without symptoms ____ 3. Which nursing action promotes an accurate weight assessment for a patient with obesity? a. Use the patient’s reported weight instead of measuring current weight c. Obtain the weight privately with equipment that accommodates the patient b. Estimate weight from waist circumference without measuring body weight d. Measure weight publicly using a standard examination scale ____ 4. Which nursing intervention best supports ventilation during an acute asthma attack accompanied by anxiety and increased work of breathing? a. Position the patient in high Fowler’s position and coach pursed-lip breathing c. Place the patient supine and encourage rapid shallow breathing b. Encourage forceful coughing while delaying prescribed bronchodilator therapy d. Leave the patient alone to decrease external stimulation during the attack ____ 5. Which finding supports classification of an asthma exacerbation as mild to moderate? a. The patient speaks only in words and has a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min c. The patient is drowsy and has a PEFR less than 50% of personal best b. The patient is confused and has a silent chest on auscultation d. The patient speaks in sentences and has a PEFR greater than 50% of personal best ____ 6. What method is appropriate for administering albuterol during acute bronchospasm? a. Administer the medication only by an oral tablet during the acute episode c. Administer the medication through a feeding tube at routine daily intervals b. Administer the medication by intramuscular injection instead of inhalation d. Administer the medication with a hand-held nebulizer or metered-dose inhaler with a spacer ____ 7. Which nutrition intervention supports sustainable weight loss in an adult with obesity? a. Replace nutritious foods with sugary beverages for additional calories c. Eliminate an entire food category for rapid weight reduction b. Select the most restrictive diet regardless of food preferences d. Emphasize vegetables, fruits, whole grains, and lean protein ____ 8. What intervention has priority for pulseless ventricular tachycardia? a. Provide elective synchronized cardioversion after sedation c. Administer oral amiodarone before initiating compressions b. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation and rapid defibrillation d. Obtain a routine outpatient Holter recording ____ 9. What therapy is identified as the treatment of choice for persistent atrial flutter? a. Permanent anticoagulation as the only therapy c. Continuous chest physiotherapy b. Radiofrequency catheter ablation d. Routine oxygen therapy without rhythm treatment ____ 10. What intervention best supports early functional recovery after hip or knee arthroplasty? a. Coordinate prescribed analgesia with early range-of-motion exercise and ambulation c. Restrict joint movement until all postoperative pain has resolved b. Delay ambulation until the patient has regained full muscle strength d. Continue prophylactic anticoagulation for only the first postoperative day ____ 11. What position should be avoided after posterior-approach total hip replacement to prevent prosthesis dislocation? a. Keeping the knees separated with an abduction wedge between the legs c. Maintaining the head and trunk in an upright position while standing b. Flexing the hip beyond 90 degrees while sitting on a low chair d. Using an elevated toilet seat during early recovery ____ 12. Which finding most strongly suggests destruction of dermal nerve endings in a burn wound? a. Severe pain with a moist, red wound c. Pain surrounding intact blisters b. Absence of pain in a deeply burned area d. Pain that increases during wound cleansing ____ 13. What patient instruction best reduces the risk of complications during the initial phase of cast care? a. Elevate the casted extremity above heart level and apply ice as directed c. Keep the joints above and below the cast completely immobile b. Place the casted extremity below heart level during rest d. Insert a narrow object under the cast to relieve itching ____ 14. Which referral is most appropriate for a woman with persistent genital pain and difficulty with sexual activity? a. No referral unless laboratory testing confirms an abnormality c. A provider who focuses only on breast cancer screening b. A health care professional experienced in female sexual medicine d. A provider who evaluates only urinary tract infections ____ 15. Which intervention is appropriate for a patient with symptomatic hypocalcemia and tetany? a. Delay treatment until the ECG normalizes c. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate as prescribed b. Administer a loop diuretic routinely d. Provide only a low-calcium diet ____ 16. Which laboratory evaluation is appropriate when assessing obesity-related liver and metabolic effects? a. Serum calcium alone without glucose or lipid testing c. Liver function tests, fasting glucose, and a lipid panel b. Urinalysis alone without metabolic or liver testing d. A stool culture alone without liver function testing ____ 17. Which monitoring action is essential during treatment of hypernatremia? a. Decrease sodium to normal as rapidly as possible c. Avoid monitoring neurologic status during treatment b. Administer sodium-containing fluids for every cause d. Monitor serum sodium and serum osmolality ____ 18. Which assessment finding is most consistent with a partial-thickness burn? a. A wet, shiny, pink-to-cherry-red wound c. An intact, nonerythematous epidermis b. A black, charred wound with intact sensation d. A dry, leathery, painless wound ____ 19. Which cervical cancer screening schedule is recommended by the USPSTF for a 25-year-old patient with a cervix? a. Cytology and HPV cotesting every 5 years c. No screening until symptoms of cervical cancer occur b. Primary HPV testing every year d. Cytology testing every 3 years ____ 20. Which electrocardiographic pattern should the nurse associate with acute hyperkalemia in acute kidney injury? a. Narrow QRS complexes with inverted P waves c. Peaked T waves with QRS widening b. Shortened PR intervals with delta waves d. Prolonged QT intervals with prominent U waves ____ 21. Which finding is most consistent with a lower gastrointestinal complication after bariatric surgery? a. Reduced need for protein during the first postoperative months c. Improved appetite after consuming calorie-dense foods b. Increased tolerance of large meals without discomfort d. Diarrhea associated with high-carbohydrate intake ____ 22. Which ambulation technique is appropriate when a patient uses a cane for an involved lower extremity? a. Advance the uninvolved extremity before advancing the cane c. Hold the cane in the hand opposite the involved extremity b. Hold the cane in the hand on the same side as the involved extremity d. Support body weight by leaning the axilla onto the cane ____ 23. Which positioning intervention is appropriate for a patient with facial and neck burns? a. Maintain the neck in a flexed position c. Place a pillow directly beneath the burned ears b. Wrap the entire face tightly with gauze d. Place a rolled towel under the shoulders to support neck hyperextension ____ 24. What finding requires immediate notification of the health care provider after orthopedic surgery? a. An increase in the size of the bloody drainage area on the dressing c. Small unchanged drainage noted on the postoperative dressing b. Stable distal pulses that are equal bilaterally d. Mild incisional discomfort relieved by the prescribed analgesic ____ 25. Which weight-bearing instruction corresponds to touch-down or toe-touch ambulation after lower-extremity surgery? a. Permit the toes to contact the floor for balance without bearing weight c. Permit unlimited weight through the involved limb as tolerated b. Permit approximately one-half of body weight through the involved limb d. Prevent all contact between the involved limb and the floor ____ 26. Which patient history supports consideration of an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator? a. Survival from a previous sudden cardiac death c. A single isolated premature ventricular contraction b. A normal ambulatory ECG with no dysrhythmia history d. Controlled atrial flutter without ventricular instability ____ 27. Which assessment pattern is most consistent with septic shock rather than early hemorrhagic shock? a. Warm, pink skin with tachycardia and unstable blood pressure c. Warm skin with strong pulses and stable vital signs b. Pale skin with decreased temperature and improved urine output d. Cool, pale skin with initially stable blood pressure ____ 28. Which intervention is appropriate for supporting breathing in a patient with an inhalation injury? a. Place the patient flat in bed c. Place the patient in high Fowler’s position unless contraindicated b. Restrict fluids as the primary respiratory intervention d. Withhold oxygen until arterial blood gases are available ____ 29. Which nursing intervention has priority for a patient with pancytopenia caused by aplastic anemia? a. Use intramuscular injections for routine medications c. Implement measures that prevent infection and bleeding b. Delay infection assessment until fever develops d. Encourage unrestricted activity to improve endurance ____ 30. Which measurement most directly evaluates carbon dioxide elimination during respiratory support? a. Cardiac electrical activity c. End-tidal carbon dioxide b. Peripheral oxygen saturation d. Arterial blood pressure ____ 31. Which prescribed therapy helps reduce the incidence of postoperative atrial fibrillation after coronary artery bypass graft surgery? a. Restart a beta-blocker as soon as possible after surgery when not contraindicated c. Use a sequential compression device as the primary rhythm therapy b. Delay all cardiac medications until hospital discharge d. Administer a long-acting nitrate to every postoperative patient ____ 32. Which assessment finding is most consistent with chronic kidney disease–associated anemia? a. Microcytic anemia caused only by increased erythropoietin production c. Normocytic, normochromic anemia with reduced erythropoietin production b. Macrocytic anemia caused only by excess red blood cell production d. Hemolytic anemia caused only by increased red blood cell survival ____ 33. Which action is appropriate before applying silver sulfadiazine to a burn wound? a. Verify only a history of latex sensitivity c. Administer another sulfa medication first b. Apply the medication despite documented sulfa sensitivity d. Verify that the patient has no sulfa allergy or sensitivity ____ 34. Which intervention is appropriate for a woman experiencing vaginal dryness during hormone therapy after breast surgery? a. Avoid discussing sexual concerns until physical healing is complete c. Use a vaginal lubricant to reduce discomfort during intercourse b. Recommend discontinuing hormone therapy without consultation d. Assume mastectomy prevents future sexual satisfaction ____ 35. Which instruction should the nurse provide to a patient treated for gonorrhea? a. Wait for culture results before beginning prescribed treatment c. Resume sexual contact immediately after receiving ceftriaxone b. Return for repeat testing 3 months after treatment d. Avoid notifying sexual contacts who do not have symptoms ____ 36. Which communication technique should the nurse use with a patient who has aphasia after a stroke? a. Use complex explanations to provide complete information quickly c. Interrupt the patient to complete difficult responses b. Present one simple thought at a time and allow uninterrupted response time d. Speak loudly and repeat several ideas in one question ____ 37. Which measurement provides the standard calculation used to classify overweight and obesity? a. Waist circumference divided by hip circumference c. Weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared b. Weight in pounds divided by height in inches d. Height in meters divided by weight in kilograms squared ____ 38. Which action is required before initiating prescribed thrombolytic therapy for an acute coronary syndrome? a. Perform invasive procedures after the thrombolytic infusion begins c. Obtain baseline laboratory values and establish two or three intravenous lines b. Begin the thrombolytic infusion before obtaining baseline studies d. Delay intravenous access until reperfusion is confirmed ____ 39. Which endocrine assessment finding should the nurse associate with progressive chronic kidney disease? a. Reduced thyroid hormone associated with increased erythropoiesis c. Increased insulin production associated with improved glucose tolerance b. Reduced parathyroid hormone associated with high serum calcium d. Increased parathyroid hormone associated with low serum calcium ____ 40. Which intervention is appropriate for a patient who is NPO after surgery? a. Administer prescribed intravenous fluids c. Offer solid food before assessing swallowing b. Provide unrestricted oral fluids immediately d. Stop all fluid therapy until bowel sounds return ____ 41. Which upper gastrointestinal disorder is identified as an obesity-related health risk? a. Stress incontinence c. Chronic kidney disease b. Gastroesophageal reflux disease d. Left ventricular hypertrophy ____ 42. Which therapy is preferred for rapid replacement of fluid volume when the patient has a severe deficit without blood loss? a. Oral fluid restriction c. 0.9% sodium chloride solution b. 5% dextrose in water d. Loop diuretic therapy ____ 43. Which urinary-system concern should be included in the assessment of a patient with obesity? a. Polycystic ovary syndrome c. Atrial fibrillation b. Stress urinary incontinence d. Gastroesophageal reflux disease ____ 44. What blood pressure parameter should the nurse maintain during alteplase treatment for ischemic stroke and for 24 hours afterward? a. Systolic blood pressure less than 185 mm Hg c. Systolic blood pressure less than 150 mm Hg b. Systolic blood pressure less than 220 mm Hg d. Systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg ____ 45. Which finding supports a prerenal cause of acute kidney injury during the diagnostic assessment? a. A recent history of dehydration and blood loss c. Recent diagnosis of bladder outlet obstruction b. Recent exposure to contrast media d. Urine sediment containing abundant cellular casts ____ 46. Which treatment combination is commonly used for an acute COPD exacerbation? a. A loop diuretic used routinely without assessing fluid status c. An inhaled corticosteroid used alone without bronchodilator therapy b. A long-acting beta agonist used alone for immediate symptom relief d. A short-acting beta agonist combined with an oral systemic corticosteroid ____ 47. Which intervention most effectively reduces venous thromboembolism risk in a patient with poststroke hemiplegia? a. Limit repositioning to prevent neurologic stimulation c. Maintain the affected extremity in an immobile position b. Promote movement through active or passive range-of-motion exercises d. Place the affected extremity below the level of the heart ____ 48. Which assessment trend best evaluates a patient’s response to acute respiratory failure treatment? a. Stable body weight without reassessment of respiratory function c. Improved appetite without monitoring oxygen saturation or blood gases b. Improving respiratory status with favorable trends in arterial blood gas results d. Reduced anxiety without evaluating respiratory effort or gas exchange ____ 49. Which physiologic response most directly helps maintain cardiac output during severe anemia? a. Reduced cardiac workload and oxygen demand c. Decreased heart rate and stroke volume b. Decreased pulmonary and systemic circulation d. Increased heart rate and stroke volume ____ 50. Which nursing action best supports accurate assessment during an STI interview? a. Include the patient’s partner to verify the reported sexual history c. Use identical counseling statements for every patient regardless of risk b. Interview the patient privately using a respectful and nonjudgmental approach d. Limit questions to current genital symptoms and physical findings ____ 51. Which assessment is essential before administering an antidysrhythmic medication? a. Assess appetite without obtaining cardiac or laboratory data c. Review only the patient’s temperature and bowel sounds b. Withhold pulse assessment until after the medication is given d. Review the baseline ECG, vital signs, medications, and laboratory results ____ 52. Which treatment should the interprofessional team consider early for a younger patient with severe aplastic anemia who has received few blood transfusions? a. Routine oral iron supplementation alone c. Immediate calcium channel blocker therapy b. Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation d. Long-term supportive transfusions alone ____ 53. What monitoring method continuously records a patient’s ECG while the patient performs usual daily activities? a. Holter monitoring c. Synchronized cardioversion b. Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator interrogation only d. Electrophysiologic study ____ 54. What neurologic change requires immediate notification of the health care provider after a brain injury? a. A subtle decrease in level of consciousness c. A need for routine assistance with repositioning b. A stable neurologic assessment at the scheduled interval d. A request for reduced environmental stimulation ____ 55. Which dietary instruction is appropriate during the long-term recovery period after bariatric surgery? a. Consume three large meals containing calorie-dense foods c. Consume six small, high-protein feedings daily b. Eat rapidly until the prescribed portion is finished d. Drink fluids with meals to increase food tolerance ____ 56. What assessment pattern is associated with diabetes insipidus after neurologic injury? a. Decreased urine output with dilutional hyponatremia c. Decreased urine output with hypernatremia b. Increased urine output with hypernatremia d. Increased urine output with dilutional hyponatremia ____ 57. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for a patient with stable monomorphic ventricular tachycardia, a pulse, and preserved left ventricular function? a. Intravenous magnesium as the routine first choice for every VT pattern c. Oral warfarin b. Intravenous procainamide d. Inhaled corticosteroid therapy ____ 58. What action should the nurse take first when a patient with supraventricular tachycardia becomes hypotensive and clinically unstable? a. Prepare for immediate synchronized cardioversion c. Observe the rhythm until spontaneous conversion occurs b. Schedule an outpatient electrophysiologic study d. Administer oral anticoagulation before rhythm treatment ____ 59. Which intervention is appropriate for a patient with mild fluid volume deficit who can swallow safely? a. Administer sodium-free intravenous fluid immediately c. Begin rapid blood product administration b. Restrict oral fluids until laboratory values normalize d. Offer oral rehydration fluids ____ 60. Which specimen is appropriate for nucleic acid amplification testing when evaluating suspected gonorrhea in a man? a. A sputum specimen collected during a productive cough c. A urine specimen or urethral swab b. A stool specimen collected after antibiotic therapy d. A serum specimen obtained before urination ____ 61. Which exercise should be reinforced for a patient recovering from a Colles’ fracture? a. Repeated lifting of heavy objects with the affected hand c. Complete immobilization of the shoulder and elbow joints b. Forceful wrist rotation against the immobilization device d. Active movement of the fingers and thumb on the affected hand ____ 62. Which safer-sex teaching point should the nurse include regarding nonoxynol 9? a. Add nonoxynol 9 to condoms to improve infection prevention c. Apply nonoxynol 9 before every sexual encounter for complete protection b. Avoid using nonoxynol 9 alone as protection against STI transmission d. Use nonoxynol 9 instead of condoms when pregnancy prevention is needed ____ 63. What urine output defines oliguria during the initial phase of acute kidney injury? a. Less than 400 mL per day c. Approximately 5 L per day b. Approximately 1 to 3 L per day d. More than 400 mL per day ____ 64. Which clinical condition meets a commonly used indication for renal replacement therapy in acute kidney injury? a. BUN level of 40 mg/dL with no neurologic changes c. Stable serum potassium with normal cardiac findings b. Serum bicarbonate below 15 mEq/L with metabolic acidosis d. Mild edema without respiratory or cardiac compromise ____ 65. Which finding is most consistent with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion in a patient with a neurologic disorder? a. Increased urine output with normal serum sodium c. Decreased urine output with dilutional hyponatremia b. Increased urine output with hypernatremia d. Decreased urine output with hypernatremia ____ 66. Which prehospital action limits progression of thermal tissue damage after a burn? a. Cover the wound immediately with a dry blanket c. Apply topical antimicrobial cream before cooling b. Keep the patient covered with multiple wet dressings d. Flush the burned tissue with copious amounts of water ____ 67. What change in defibrillator management is required when a patient undergoing synchronized cardioversion becomes pulseless and develops ventricular fibrillation? a. Pause electrical therapy and obtain a routine ECG c. Maintain synchronization and continue elective cardioversion b. Turn off the synchronizer and begin defibrillation d. Increase sedation and wait for a palpable pulse ____ 68. What teaching is appropriate for a patient with a new lower-limb amputation who is learning residual-limb care? a. Allow the residual limb to dangle over the bedside several times daily c. Wrap the residual limb tightly enough to eliminate all distal pulses b. Apply the compression bandage snugly and avoid restricting circulation d. Leave the compression bandage off whenever the patient is resting ____ 69. What nursing action best reduces fall risk associated with orthostatic hypotension from fluid volume deficit? a. Teach the patient to change positions slowly c. Keep the patient on strict bed rest b. Encourage the patient to stand rapidly d. Place the patient in a darkened room ____ 70. Which prescribed therapy directly targets the ventricular response in atrial flutter? a. A calcium channel blocker or beta-blocker c. An inhaled short-acting bronchodilator b. A loop diuretic as the sole rhythm-control medication d. An oral iron replacement product ____ 71. Which medication combination is appropriate when a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent is used for refractory intracranial hypertension? a. A neuromuscular blocking agent combined only with an antiseizure medication c. A neuromuscular blocking agent combined with sedation and analgesia b. A neuromuscular blocking agent administered without additional medication d. A neuromuscular blocking agent combined only with an IV fluid ____ 72. Which postoperative assessment is most important for detecting a major early complication after coronary artery bypass graft surgery? a. Remove invasive monitoring devices immediately after surgery c. Measure chest tube drainage and inspect incision sites for bleeding b. Assess appetite before evaluating hemodynamic status d. Limit monitoring to the surgical incision after extubation ____ 73. Which intervention is the priority when a severe asthma exacerbation worsens during outpatient treatment? a. Transfer the patient to an acute care facility while administering SABA, oxygen, and systemic corticosteroid c. Discontinue bronchodilator therapy and allow the patient to rest in the clinic b. Discharge the patient after symptoms briefly decrease without reassessment d. Begin inhaled corticosteroid therapy and postpone oxygen administration ____ 74. Which preparation is required before nonemergency synchronized cardioversion for a patient who is awake and hemodynamically stable? a. Administer prescribed intravenous sedation and maintain airway vigilance c. Withhold sedation and apply the defibrillator without monitoring b. Administer routine oral medications and postpone airway assessment d. Turn off synchronization before delivering the initial shock ____ 75. Which nursing assessment is most important for detecting organ injury from disseminated intravascular coagulation? a. Monitor urine output for a decrease c. Assess skin temperature without reviewing laboratory studies b. Measure oral intake without assessing mental status d. Monitor only for visible bruising ____ 76. Which eligibility criterion supports consideration of prescribed drug therapy for obesity? a. A BMI of 27 kg/m2 with hypertension c. A BMI of 26 kg/m2 with a preference for rapid weight loss b. A BMI of 24 kg/m2 without comorbid disease d. A BMI of 25 kg/m2 with no health complication ____ 77. Which assessment finding most directly indicates inadequate renal perfusion in a patient being evaluated for hemodynamic instability? a. Hypoactive bowel sounds c. Warm, pink skin b. Decreased urine output d. Increased peripheral pulses ____ 78. Which renal problem is identified as a possible health risk associated with obesity? a. Chronic kidney disease c. Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis b. Coronary artery disease d. Lumbar disk disease ____ 79. What activity should be avoided to protect a joint replacement from excessive implant stress? a. High-impact exercise such as jogging or tennis c. Prescribed quadriceps-setting exercises performed regularly b. Swimming performed after the incision has adequately healed d. Stationary cycling performed according to rehabilitation guidance ____ 80. What postoperative action best supports safe progression to ambulation? a. Return the patient to bed after any mild fatigue c. Assist the patient directly from lying to walking b. Ask the patient to walk without pulse monitoring d. Raise the head of the bed before sitting the patient ____ 81. Which nursing action best evaluates daily changes in fluid status for a patient with acute kidney injury? a. Obtain daily weights using the same scale and schedule c. Record urine appearance without measuring urine volume b. Measure blood pressure only when edema becomes visible d. Estimate fluid balance from the patient’s thirst level ____ 82. What finding supports the use of intracranial pressure monitoring in a patient with neurologic injury? a. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 with a normal CT scan c. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 12 with a normal CT scan b. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 8 with an abnormal CT scan d. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 with a normal MRI scan ____ 83. Which intervention best limits contracture formation during burn rehabilitation? a. Maintain the burned joint in a flexed position c. Apply pressure garments over an unhealed wound b. Limit movement until the skin is fully mature d. Maintain prescribed positioning, splinting, and range-of-motion exercises ____ 84. What peak expiratory flow rate requires the patient with asthma to seek health care as soon as possible? a. A value in the red zone at 50% or less of the personal best c. A value in the yellow zone at 50% to 80% of the personal best b. A value slightly above the patient’s established personal best d. A value in the green zone at 80% to 100% of the personal best ____ 85. Which intervention best addresses modifiable risk factors in a patient with stage A heart failure? a. Promote weight management, dietary improvement, and regular exercise c. Wait for symptoms before treating hypertension and diabetes b. Restrict all physical activity to prevent cardiac workload d. Avoid recommended vaccinations unless heart failure develops ____ 86. Which monitoring action is indicated when repeated short-acting bronchodilator doses are administered? a. Monitor vital signs and the ECG for tachycardia, hypertension, dysrhythmias, or ischemic changes c. Monitor only bowel sounds because cardiac effects are not expected b. Withhold all cardiovascular assessment until respiratory symptoms resolve d. Monitor urine color because bronchodilators primarily affect renal function ____ 87. Which monitoring plan is expected for a patient receiving intensive care for severe acute respiratory failure? a. Continuous pulse oximetry, arterial blood pressure monitoring, and frequent arterial blood gases c. Intermittent temperature checks without continuous oxygenation assessment b. Pulse checks only when the patient reports increased shortness of breath d. Daily respiratory assessments without arterial blood gas measurement ____ 88. Which positioning intervention best promotes venous drainage while helping preserve cerebral perfusion? a. Elevate the head of the bed while maintaining the head in a midline position c. Keep the head turned to the side with the hips sharply flexed b. Flex the neck and elevate the head of the bed above 30 degrees d. Place the patient flat with the neck flexed toward the chest ____ 89. Which nursing action directly supports the primary goals of burn wound care? a. Leave necrotic tissue undisturbed beneath the dressing c. Apply a new dressing without removing the old medication b. Scrub the wound forcefully to remove all tissue d. Cleanse the wound, remove necrotic tissue, and reapply the prescribed dressing ____ 90. Which complication should the nurse associate with repeated chlamydial infections in a woman? a. Pelvic inflammatory disease with increased infertility risk c. Reduced risk for ectopic pregnancy after each infection b. Improved tubal function with increased fertility d. Permanent protection against future chlamydial reinfection ____ 91. Which assessment finding requires immediate attention during the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury? a. Hypotension with a rapid loss of body weight c. Distended neck veins with increasing dependent edema b. Stable blood pressure with a gradual weight gain d. Decreased urine output with a bounding pulse ____ 92. Which patient finding should prompt screening for chronic kidney disease risk? a. A single episode of seasonal allergic rhinitis c. A remote ankle sprain without medication exposure b. A normal blood pressure with no kidney history d. A history of diabetes and persistent hypertension ____ 93. What action should be completed before initiating oral feeding after an acute stroke? a. Provide a regular meal before completing the neurologic assessment c. Offer thin liquids to test the patient’s swallowing ability b. Begin feeding after confirming that the patient is awake d. Keep the patient NPO until swallowing safety is evaluated ____ 94. Which reproductive assessment finding is included among possible manifestations of chronic kidney disease? a. Amenorrhea or erectile dysfunction c. Increased testosterone production with enhanced libido b. Permanent reproductive function without hormonal changes d. Increased fertility with regular ovulation ____ 95. Which reproductive complication can result from epididymitis associated with chlamydia in a man? a. Male infertility c. Improved testicular drainage b. Increased sperm production d. Permanent immunity to other STIs ____ 96. Which postoperative finding requires immediate attention to reduce aspiration risk? a. Gas discomfort on the second postoperative day c. Tolerance of prescribed clear liquids b. Return of peristalsis after surgery d. Vomiting while the patient remains lethargic ____ 97. What assessment sequence best evaluates the neurovascular status distal to an extremity fracture? a. Assess pain, joint range of motion, muscle size, gait, and posture c. Assess color, temperature, capillary refill, pulses, edema, sensation, motor function, and pain b. Assess skin turgor, bowel sounds, lung sounds, temperature, and urine output d. Assess muscle strength, reflexes, balance, hearing, and visual acuity ____ 98. Which prescribed treatment provides enzymatic debridement of a burn wound? a. A silver-impregnated dressing placed over the wound c. Silver sulfadiazine applied to the wound b. A transparent dressing placed over the wound d. Collagenase applied to nonviable burn tissue ____ 99. Which assessment finding indicates an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? a. Stable exercise tolerance with unchanged sputum characteristics c. Improved sleep with decreased respiratory effort and wheezing b. Decreased dyspnea with normal alertness and stable oxygen needs d. New or worsening dyspnea accompanied by increased sputum volume or purulence ____ 100. Which urine specific gravity finding indicates concentrated urine in a patient being assessed for fluid balance? a. 1.005 c. 1.010 b. 1.020 d. 1.030